Why in gods name would we raise pre when we'll most likely be 4 handed to the flop and have an amazing implied odds hand that will more than likely be well concealed when we hit?
09-02-2012 06:43 PM
#1
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Why in gods name would we raise pre when we'll most likely be 4 handed to the flop and have an amazing implied odds hand that will more than likely be well concealed when we hit? | |
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